1. Business recovery strategy
2. Detailed plan development
3. Business impact analysis (BIA)
4. Testing and maintenance
Answer: C
1. False-acceptance rate (FAR)
2. Equal-error rate (EER)
3. False-rejection rate (FRR)
4. False-identification rate (FIR)
Answer: A
3. A certifying authority (CA) can delegate the processes of:
1. revocation and suspension of a subscriber's certificate.
2. generation and distribution of the CA public key.
3. establishing a link between the requesting entity and its public key.
4. issuing and distributing subscriber certificates.
Answer: C
4. Which of the following is the MOST effective control when granting temporary access to vendors?
1. Vendor access corresponds to the service level agreement (SLA).
2. User accounts are created with expiration dates and are based on services provided.
3. Administrator access is provided for a limited period.
4. User IDs are deleted when the work is completed.
Answer: B
5. Which of the following acts as a decoy to detect active Internet attacks?
1. Honeypots
2. Firewalls
3. Trapdoors
4. Traffic analysis
Answer: A
6. Which of the following cryptography options would increase overhead/cost?
1. The encryption is symmetric rather than asymmetric.
2. A long asymmetric encryption key is used.
3. The hash is encrypted rather than the message.
4. A secret key is used.
Answer: B
1. A secure sockets layer (SSL) has been implemented for user authentication and remote administration of the firewall.
2. On the basis of changing requirements, firewall policies are updated.
3. Inbound traffic is blocked unless the traffic type and connections have been specifically permitted.
4. The firewall is placed on top of the commercial operating system with all installation options.
Answer: D
1. compromised the wireless application protocol (WAP) gateway.
2. installed a sniffing program in front of the server.
3. stole a customer's PDA.
4. listened to the wireless transmission.
Answer: A
1. Availability of online network documentation
2. Support of terminal access to remote hosts
3. Handling file transfer between hosts and interuser communications
4. Performance management, audit and control
Answer: A
10. In reviewing the IS short-range (tactical) plan, the IS auditor should determine whether:
1. there is an integration of IS and business staffs within projects.
2. there is a clear definition of the IS mission and vision.
3. there is a strategic information technology planning methodology in place.
4. the plan correlates business objectives to IS goals and objectives.
Answer: A
1. desired result or purpose of implementing specific control procedures.
2. best IT security control practices relevant to a specific entity.
3. techniques for securing information.
4. security policy.
Answer: A
1. User management coordination does not exist.
2. Specific user accountability cannot be established.
3. Unauthorized users may have access to originate, modify or delete data.
4. Audit recommendations may not be implemented.
Answer: C
13. The PRIMARY advantage of a continuous audit approach is that it:
1. does not require an IS auditor to collect evidence on system reliability while processing is taking place.
2. requires the IS auditor to review and follow up immediately on all information collected.
3. can improve system security when used in time-sharing environments that process a large number of transactions.
4. does not depend on the complexity of an organization's computer systems.
Answer: C
14. In a risk-based audit approach, an IS auditor, in addition to risk, would be influenced by:
1. the availability of CAATs.
2. management's representation.
3. organizational structure and job responsibilities.
4. the existence of internal and operational controls
Answer: D
1. include the finding in the final report because the IS auditor is responsible for an accurate report of all findings.
2. not include the finding in the final report because the audit report should include only unresolved findings.
3. not include the finding in the final report because corrective action can be verified by the IS auditor during the audit.
4. include the finding in the closing meeting for discussion purposes only.
Answer: A
16. Which of the following represents the GREATEST potential risk in an EDI environment?
1. Transaction authorization
2. Loss or duplication of EDI transmissions
3. Transmission delay
4. Deletion or manipulation of transactions prior to or after establishment of application controls
Answer: 1
1. Allow changes to be made only with the DBA user account.
2. Make changes to the database after granting access to a normal user account
3. Use the DBA user account to make changes, log the changes and review the change log the following day.
4. Use the normal user account to make changes, log the changes and review the change log the following day.
Answer: 3
1. Data availability
2. Data completeness
3. Data redundancy
4. Data inaccuracy
Answer: 2
1. database integrity checks.
2. validation checks.
3. input controls.
4. database commits and rollbacks.
Answer: 4
20. Which of the following is a dynamic analysis tool for the purpose of testing software modules?
1. Black box test
2. Desk checking
3. Structured walk-through
4. Design and code
Answer: 1
1. Deactivation
2. Monitoring
3. Authorization
4. Resetting
Answer: 4
22. Which of the following risks could result from inadequate software baselining?
1. Scope creep
2. Sign-off delays
3. Software integrity violations
4. Inadequate controls
Answer: 1
1. Parallel testing
2. Pilot testing
3. Interface/integration testing
4. Sociability testing
Answer: 4
1. shadow file processing.
2. electronic vaulting.
3. hard-disk mirroring.
4. hot-site provisioning.
Answer: 1
1. The previous day's backup file and the current transaction tape
2. The previous day's transaction file and the current transaction tape
3. The current transaction tape and the current hard copy transaction log
4. The current hard copy transaction log and the previous day's transaction file
Answer: 1
